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Post by benzin on Jun 15, 2011 20:20:47 GMT 3
How could we mix up as much during the decades that our closest language relatives the mansies N dna are taking only 3,5 % of the population, its half as much as it is taken to be hunnic. Even less then what is thought yassic, who were never been a numerous and much noted tribe in our history. How can we be so far genetically from our language relatives, I will never understand that, we are even closer to north american indians.
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Post by hjernespiser on Jun 16, 2011 0:46:45 GMT 3
One word answer: SEX!
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Post by benzin on Jun 16, 2011 12:38:31 GMT 3
Yes thats what many scholars says about this thing. Its easy to say, because its not surprise that we are a mix of several tribes. Several other scholars says its impossible that magyar language could be the main language if the magyars would be genetically finno ugrians, they were so low in number, they wouldnt be able to take the leading role of those wild tribes who left behind from the hunnic and avarian federations, neither to rule on the slavs or beat the bulgars, or to sack half europe. Even the most finno ugric fan scholars doesnt dare to say we would relate to finno ugrians genetically at all.
If there were more turkic element in the federation than finno ugrian how could the finno ugrian language got the leading role and it hold the leading role over the decades ? The cumans knew their turkic language even in the 18th century, they would have been more populous than those who were genetically finno ugrian.
We know that ancient hungarian kingdoms always had pecheneg, kuman etc tribes to fight on the front. Its strange that we mix up in the way nothing left from those tribes who were fought on the back and there is much more genetical path of those helping forces who were leading in the front and probably got a higher death toll in each battle.
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Post by aynur on Sept 3, 2011 20:43:01 GMT 3
The Magyars and modern Hungarians are a unique case because so many different peoples of different origin (Germanic, Iranic, Slavic, Turkic, Mongolic in medieval times and possibly Finno-Ugric) have inhabited the area for the past two thousand years. It isn't safe to say that the Magyars only belong to a specific group of peoples. The Cumans and Pechenegs certainly had a significant impact on both the linguistic and ethnic stock of the entire Hungarian nation, but the Avars, Alans, Ostrogoths and others had their share in it too.
My own theory is that the Magyars who lived in the Ural mountains before beginning their migration west were predominantly Turkic and had exhibited and inherited many cultural traits from other similar tribes that lived in the steppe, but there is no doubt in my mind that the Magyars had several Finno-Ugric tribes and peoples absorbed into them as well. It might have been a language of governance similar to Latin in Europe in the middle ages.
I'm Finnish myself and I personally feel that the Magyars are a very distant people if they are related to us in any way. Our cultures and languages are very different.
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Post by hjernespiser on Sept 3, 2011 23:10:32 GMT 3
When you speak of them beginning their migration west, what time period are you talking about? The language doesn't have much Turkic linguistic evidence beyond a certain point, yet the ethnonym and lifestyle were were coming from the Finno-Ugric part that got influenced from Iranian steppe nomads before then.
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