why did the seljuks use persian as administration

[nisse]

why did the seljuks use persian as the administration language, why didnt they use turkish instead of persian, did they forgett to write in turkish or what is the reason behind it, for example other states like the ottomans used turkish

[H. İhsan Erkoç]

Why did you open this thread in the "Modern Steppes History" board?

[nisse]

I dont know, here shall I have opened it then

[H. İhsan Erkoç]

To answer your question: the Uyghurs and Qarakhanids were already using the Uyghur alphabet in the 10th-11th centuries. Later, the Qarakhanids adopted the Arabic script for the Khâqânî dialect of their own in the 11th century. But the Oghuz were mostly illiterate so it was harder to write Oghuz with the Arabic alphabet (eventhough there weren't many differences between Khâqânî and Oghuz dialects back than). More correctly to say, the Oghuz dialect had not developed to become a written dialect yet, unlike Uyghur and Khâqânî (but we do know the existence of a very small number of Oghuz books recorded to be written with the Arabic letters in the 11th century; unfortuntately, to my knowledge, none of them survive). The Oghuz dialect became a written dialect only in the 13th century. The reason why they used the Arabic language was because it was the lingua franca (common language) of the Islamic World; the reason why they used Persian was because they had many Persian officials working for them (Persian had become a written language again in the 10th century when it was adopted to the Arabic script).

[nisse]

To answer your question: the Uyghurs and Qarakhanids were already using the Uyghur alphabet in the 10th-11th centuries. Later, the Qarakhanids adopted the Arabic script for the Khâqânî dialect of their own in the 11th century. But the Oghuz were mostly illiterate so it was harder to write Oghuz with the Arabic alphabet (eventhough there weren't many differences between Khâqânî and Oghuz dialects back than). More correctly to say, the Oghuz dialect had not developed to become a written dialect yet, unlike Uyghur and Khâqânî (but we do know the existence of a very small number of Oghuz books recorded to be written with the Arabic letters in the 11th century; unfortuntately, to my knowledge, none of them survive). The Oghuz dialect became a written dialect only in the 13th century. The reason why they used the Arabic language was because it was the lingua franca (common language) of the Islamic World; the reason why they used Persian was because they had many Persian officials working for them (Persian had become a written language again in the 10th century when it was adopted to the Arabic script).

why didnt they use the khagani turkish, they could of just modified it a little bit if it was so hard, instead they adopted a language they dont understand, that seem strange, or maybe because they didnt afford to develp a new script,

[Temüjin]

admin said:

The reason why they used the Arabic language was because it was the lingua franca (common language) of the Islamic World; the reason why they used Persian was because they had many Persian officials working for them (Persian had become a written language again in the 10th century when it was adopted to the Arabic script).

those two are the key points, they just adopted what was already existing in the territories they conquered, it was already established and there was no reason to change it.

[nisse]

ok, thanks for the clearification