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Post by arnewise12 on Jul 9, 2009 20:19:00 GMT 3
Hi I dont know if its the right thread to write but this one was the most proper I think.
Lets get to the question. Is the tajik iranic or persian I mean , the tajiks are descents of soghdianans which is not persians but iranic, they speak and have a different culture than the persians, who come todays tajiks speak persian instead of their old language, did the persians persinifia the area of tajiks lived or what was it , also, why do tajiks live in bukhara, I mean didnt there civilzation only reach inside ferghana valley and not outside it , please enlighten me
thanks
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Post by sarmat on Jul 9, 2009 21:16:59 GMT 3
Tajiks don't exactly speak Persian. They speak Tajik, which is quite similar to Farsi and mutually intelligible, but still those are different languages.
In fact, Sogdians (Tajiks) were living in almost all agricultural sedentary areas of Central Asia, even including modern Eastern Turkestan (areas like Turpan oazis).
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Post by hjernespiser on Jul 9, 2009 21:37:24 GMT 3
This topic reminds me of something I read about a Tadjik dialect/language in a certain valley, the name of which escapes me right now, in Badakhshan that is a remain of the original Saka or Sogd language. I'll have to get back on that...
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Post by hjernespiser on Jul 9, 2009 21:41:29 GMT 3
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Post by Temüjin on Jul 9, 2009 23:10:47 GMT 3
it's not in Badakhshan though, in Badakhshan they speak Pamiri.
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Post by H. İhsan Erkoç on Jul 10, 2009 2:09:56 GMT 3
The "Persianization" of the Soghdians happened mostly during the Samanid period, if I remember correctly.
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Post by sarmat on Jul 10, 2009 6:10:44 GMT 3
Yeah, I think that's right.
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Post by Azadan Januspar on Jul 10, 2009 10:09:05 GMT 3
Sogdians were not Persians (I think this is much too obvious, and I wonder sometimes why you come up with such questions arnewise?!) and its not right to say "Sogdian (Tajiks)". Hjernespiser is right the Yagnabi language is a remanant of Sogdian language, today Tajik language is branch a of Parsi, like Ihsan said it appeared due to use of Persian langauge by the Samanids in their court and thus spreading of it from then on by means of medieval literature in the lands inhabited by Iranian people who hadn't been necessarily speaking Persian language.
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Post by arnewise12 on Jul 10, 2009 13:24:59 GMT 3
why is this obvious, everyone doesnt know history full out and there for asks, thats why I ask silly boy
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Post by H. İhsan Erkoç on Jul 10, 2009 14:03:45 GMT 3
You better watch your language against the members of the Staff.
Azadan is right. Sometimes you ask just too simple questions whose answers you can easily find in Wikipedia.
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