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Post by erik on Feb 26, 2009 15:36:37 GMT 3
Why do the use of the word Khan with K in Books and infromation about Chinggis khan exists. Wouldent the Cryllic Xan be a simple Chinggis Haan. I read somewhere that K isent prounonced in mongolian. is that true ?
How is really Khan pronounced? And how do u turks say it? if u try to write it fonetic, hard with the english language as its writing system is so unlogical.
Maybe many other languages are this way too but i just know Finnish, and its always a 100% phonetic. Seems so much simpler this way than the way english, french and i guess many europeans are writing.
Heard Turkish should be very phonetic too
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Post by odbayarb2000 on Feb 26, 2009 21:33:52 GMT 3
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Post by erik on Feb 27, 2009 5:47:25 GMT 3
Thanks,
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Post by H. İhsan Erkoç on Feb 27, 2009 10:15:22 GMT 3
English Kh, German Ch and Cyrillic X all stand for one sound: the frictive H (though in Serbian and Macedonian Cyrillic, X is pronounced like English H because frictive H does not exist in Serbo-Croatian and Macedonian).
Modern Turkish (Istanbul dialect) doesn't have the Frictive H sound but the local dialects have. Today we pronounce Khan as Han with a soft H, but before the 20th century, it was with a Frictive H which could be differenciated by a different letter in the Arabic script.
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Post by Temüjin on Feb 27, 2009 20:26:21 GMT 3
is this also true for modern Mongolian because to me it sounded like a soft H and not the frictive H in the video...
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Post by H. İhsan Erkoç on Feb 27, 2009 22:36:38 GMT 3
Mongolian X is frictive H; ordinary H also exists but used rarely (only in a few foreign loanwords). However, ordinary H was a lot more common in older versions of Mongolian (such as Hülegü [which is now Khülegü] or Hula'an [which is now Ulaan]).
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Post by H. İhsan Erkoç on Feb 27, 2009 22:46:44 GMT 3
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Post by hjernespiser on Feb 28, 2009 2:30:00 GMT 3
In English the "kh" transcription is supposed to stand for the fricative H sound, but most English speakers (or at least Americans and even myself) would say "kan". English doesn't really have the fricative H sound. If I said "khan" to someone off the street, they wouldn't know what I'm talking about.
Erik, by the way, English is spelled exactly how it used to be pronounced!
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Post by erik on Feb 28, 2009 5:32:58 GMT 3
You must be joking,
English is written just like it is pronounced?
For a non native english speaker like me, If I see a new word the chans is big I cant pronounce it right. The letters have diffrent sounds in diffrent words, u dont know if a vowel is short or long many times.
How come every dictionary or travell guides all use diffrent spellings for foreign words (languages that uses a diffrent alphabet)
if you just write it like it is pronounced.
"The spelling of words often diverges considerably from how they are spoken"
"English has fewer consistent relationships between sounds and letters than many other languages; for example, the sound sequence ough can be pronounced in not less than seven different ways" Wikipedia
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Post by hjernespiser on Feb 28, 2009 6:14:37 GMT 3
I think you misread what I wrote. I said English is spelled how it used to be pronounced. ;D
Take for example, "night". This was pronounced not much differently from German "nacht". In words like knight, knee, know, the "k" was pronounced.
Some of the other spelling strangeness is attributable to French-based borrowings into English where the French spelling was kept, but English people couldn't pronounce the word like the French did.
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Post by erik on Feb 28, 2009 16:38:12 GMT 3
aha ok. then i get it.
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