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Post by ancalimon on Nov 9, 2012 18:43:41 GMT 3
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Post by Temüjin on Nov 12, 2012 20:44:57 GMT 3
what do those genes prove in your opinion? do you think people are inbred? ;D
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Post by Ardavarz on Nov 13, 2012 0:37:37 GMT 3
That's funny. Some time ago I was on a lecture about such genetic studies. According to the lecturer Bulgarians were genetically most close to the British too (in Europe at least). He cited some data from genetic studies, but I can't remember details and then I haven't had money to buy the booklet he was selling (it would be amusing if not anything else).
I guess I am right not to take such claims too seriously - apart from genetic analysis they are based mainly on statistics and statistics can prove anything and nothing. Plus - they are often put on wrong assumptions as if all the people in one country are related and represent some homogenous unit. Actually the modern "nations" are just arbitrary groups of people defined by the state borders and not by their ethnic background. The researchers cannot test every single person in one country, so they take genetic material from the blood banks and there is no guarantee that this represents the real genetic profile of the population (here for instance there are gipsy families who have made from blood-donation almost an occupation and through them we can be related to anybody given that their brothers have settled almost everywhere in the world).
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Post by ancalimon on Nov 15, 2012 15:55:49 GMT 3
Of course these types of studies do not represent everybody living in a geography. They just represent the average.
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Post by hjernespiser on Nov 16, 2012 20:42:53 GMT 3
I found the linguistic paper to back it up! LOL! "The investigation of lexical parallels between Altaic and Old English may well prove to be one of the most important ways in which we can detect early contact between Altaic and Anglo-Saxon in Inner Asia." www.sino-platonic.org/complete/spp065_loanwords_altaic.pdf
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Post by ancalimon on Nov 16, 2012 22:27:10 GMT 3
I guess those words are considered Indo-European in origin by the person that wrote that paper because there are older records of supposed forms of those words in Sansktrit?
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