Post by Ardavarz on Nov 7, 2010 1:53:31 GMT 3
In medieval Arabian and Persian sources one can encounter the term Saqlab (pl. Saqāliba) which is usually translated (especially by Russian scholars) as "Slav". I have thought for a long time that there is something wrong with this interpretation.
For instance in Ahmad Ibn Fadlān's travel report the king of Volga Bulgars is called Malik al-Saqāliba or "king of Saqlabs". But Volga Bulgars have never been Slavs and I doubt there was many Slavic-speaking tribes (if any) amongst them at that time (in 10th century). And then why Danubian Bulgars were not called Saqāliba despite of numerous Slavic population in the Balkans, but the Muslim authors call them Burjān instead?
Furthermore, if Saqlab is a distortion of the Greek designation Sklaboi/Sklabinoi, why Arabs have written it with letter Qāf instead of Kāf? And if the initial consonant cluster should be avoided why not use a prothetic vowel instead of epenthetic one (like for instance in Persian Eslāv - "Slav")?
Now here is a thought: could "Saqlab" be originated from Turikic saqallugh - "bearded" (from saqal - "beard")?
While travelling to Volga Bulgars Ibn Fadlān have passed through the lands around Caspian Sea inhabited by the Ghuz tribe (Oghuz?) which had a peculiar custom described by him to dehair their faces using valves. So it would be quite natural for them to refer to the people living north (including Bulgars) as saqallughlar - "the bearded ones". The Arabs could have picked this up as a name and transform it in "Saqlab".
This is just a suggestion but if it's right, then there is a big mess in all works treating the term Saqlab as "Slav" and therefore their conclusions cannot be trusted.
For instance in Ahmad Ibn Fadlān's travel report the king of Volga Bulgars is called Malik al-Saqāliba or "king of Saqlabs". But Volga Bulgars have never been Slavs and I doubt there was many Slavic-speaking tribes (if any) amongst them at that time (in 10th century). And then why Danubian Bulgars were not called Saqāliba despite of numerous Slavic population in the Balkans, but the Muslim authors call them Burjān instead?
Furthermore, if Saqlab is a distortion of the Greek designation Sklaboi/Sklabinoi, why Arabs have written it with letter Qāf instead of Kāf? And if the initial consonant cluster should be avoided why not use a prothetic vowel instead of epenthetic one (like for instance in Persian Eslāv - "Slav")?
Now here is a thought: could "Saqlab" be originated from Turikic saqallugh - "bearded" (from saqal - "beard")?
While travelling to Volga Bulgars Ibn Fadlān have passed through the lands around Caspian Sea inhabited by the Ghuz tribe (Oghuz?) which had a peculiar custom described by him to dehair their faces using valves. So it would be quite natural for them to refer to the people living north (including Bulgars) as saqallughlar - "the bearded ones". The Arabs could have picked this up as a name and transform it in "Saqlab".
This is just a suggestion but if it's right, then there is a big mess in all works treating the term Saqlab as "Slav" and therefore their conclusions cannot be trusted.